Sifra 12.0.3

Behar, Section 2

1) (Vayikra 25:8) ("And you shall count for yourself seven Sabbaths of years, seven years, seven times; and they shall be for you, the days of the seven Sabbaths of years, forty-nine years.") "And you shall count for yourself": in beth-din": I might think seven Sabbaths of days, i.e., seven weeks; it is, therefore, written "seven Sabbaths of years." If "seven Sabbaths of years" (alone were written), I might think that he counts seven shemitoth one after the other and then declares Yovel. It is, therefore, written "seven years, seven times." (i.e., in forty-nine years, seven shemitoth seven times.) Both verses, then, are needed; if not, we would not know (the halachah.)

2) And whence is it derived that we count the years of the seven (shemitoth, e.g., Today marks the first year to shemitah")? From "the days of the seven Sabbaths of years." Whence is it derived that we count the years of Yovel? From "forty-nine years." Whence do we derive that shemitah is observed even if Yovel is not observed, (as when the ten tribes were exiled)? From "seven Sabbaths of years." And whence is it derived that Yovel is observed even if shemitah is not observed, (as in the instance of their returning to Eretz Yisrael at the end of fifty years)? From "forty-nine years." These are the words of R. Yehudah. And the sages say: Shevi'ith is observed even if Yovel is not observed; but Yovel is not observed unless accompanied by Shevi'ith.

3) (Vayikra 25:9) ("And you shall cause to pass a shofar of teruah in the seventh month on the tenth day of the month. On the day of atonement shall you cause to pass a shofar through all of your land.") "And you shall cause to pass": And whence is it derived that a shofar is required? From: "And you shall cause to pass a shofar." This tells me only of Yovel. Whence do I derive (the same for) Rosh Hashanah? From "And you shall cause to pass a shofar of teruah in the seventh month on the tenth day of the month. On the day of atonement." Let it not be stated "in the seventh month" (i.e., everyone knows that Yom Kippur is in the seventh month). Why is it stated? (To teach that) the teruah of the seventh month is like this. Just as this is with a shofar, so, the teruah of Rosh Hashanah, (which also falls in the seventh month) is like this (i.e., with a shofar).

4) And whence is it derived that there is a plain blast (i.e., a single uninterrupted blast [tekiah]) before it (the teruah ["broken" blasts])? From "And you shall cause to pass (connoting a single "passing") a shofar of teruah." And whence is it derived that there is a plain blast after it? From (the continuation of the verse) "shall you cause to pass a shofar." This tells me only of Yovel. Whence do I derive (the same for) Rosh Hashanah? From "and you shall cause to pass a shofar of teruah in the seventh month on the tenth day of the month. On the day of atonement." Let it not be stated in the seventh month. Why is it stated? (To teach that) the teruah of the seventh month is like this. Just as this teruah is preceded by a plain blast and followed by a plain blast, so, the teruah of Rosh Hashanah is preceded by a plain blast and followed by a plain blast.

5) "on the day (of atonement"): on the day, and not at night. "on the day of atonement": even on the Sabbath. "shall you (plural) cause to pass a shofar through all of your land": We are hereby taught that each and every individual is obliged (to blow). I might think that even the teruah of Rosh Hashanah overrides the Sabbath in all of your land; it is, therefore, written "And you shall cause to pass a shofar of teruah in the seventh month on the tenth day of the month." From "on the day of atonement" do I not know that it is the tenth day of the month? Why, then, need it be stated? (To teach that) the tenth day of the month overrides the Sabbath in all of your land, but the teruah of Rosh Hashanah does not override the Sabbath in all of your land, (but only in the Temple and in Jerusalem) — except by enactment of beth-din alone.